So I wanted to address some of the controversy around Johan’s no-no, mainly due to that “foul” ball Beltran hit right up the third base line. I didn’t watch the entire game, but I finally saw the play, and it was pretty obvious to me that the ball hit the chalk past third base, which (if called correctly) would be a fair ball, and ultimately a base hit (maybe even a double). The umpire got the call wrong, and Johan ultimately went on to pitch the first no-no in Mets history.
Being that it was a blown call, should this game really be considered a no-hitter?
Now I know my friends who are Mets fans are getting mad just reading this, but before you start sending me nastygrams, consider this:
Back in 2010, Armando Galarraga pitched a near-perfect game. I discussed it here in my rant about how the MLB needs to expand instant replay. If you saw the blown call in Galarraga’s game, you probably still consider it to be a perfect game. The umpire was completely wrong, admitted to it, and the MLB did nothing to go back and correct their records.
So taking that into account, if you agree that Galarraga’s game was indeed perfect regardless of the blown call, wouldn’t you also have to agree that Johan’s no-hitter was in fact, not a no-hitter due to the blown call?
I’m not suggesting that game shouldn’t be considered to be a no-hitter, but at a minimum it’s hypocritical to think that way. That is assuming you consider Galarraga’s game should to be perfect.
I wouldn’t take it away from Johan, but I would definitely change it for Galarraga if I could. But the thought process behind both of those statements is contradictory. I’m ok with it though. How about you?